| Compare Discounted Dividend, Free Cash Flow and Residual Income Valuation Models
Determine the circumstances when a dividend discount model (DDM) is appropriate for valuing a stock: Dividend Discount Model (DDM) is appropriate when Free Cash Flow (FCF) model is appropriate: Residual Income (RI) is the appropriate model: Free Cash Flow to the Firm (FCFF): The Cash Flow available to the suppliers of capital (debt & equity) after paying all operating expenses and necessary investments in working capital and long term assets have been covered. Free Cash Flow to Equity (FCFE): The Cash Flow available to the common shareholders after paying all operating expenses, interest expense, necessary investments in working capital and long term assets have been covered and adjusted for net changes in long term debt. Free Cash Flow Valuation
Define and interpret free cash flow to the firm (FCFF) and free cash flow to equity (FCFE): To calculate PV of FCFF and FCFE: Describe the FCFF and FCFE approaches to valuation and contrast the appropriate discount rates for each model:
Matching Cash Flows to Discount Rates
| | Use WACC | Use Keq | | F.C.F.Firm | Correct Valuation | Valuation too low | | F.C.F.Equity | Valuation too high | Correct Valuation |
Note: WACC < Keq Strengths and limitations of the FCFE model: Strengths: Limitations: Contrast the ownership perspective implicit in the FCFE approach to the ownership perspective implicit in the dividend discount approach:
Discuss the appropriate adjustments to net income, earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT), earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization (EBITDA), or cash flow from operations (CFO) to arrive at FCFF and FCFE:
FCFF = EBIT × (1 - t) plus 3 Adjustments
= EBIT × (1 – t) + 3Adjustments = NI + [Int.Exp. × (1 – t)] + 3Adjustments = (EBITDA – Depr) × (1 – t) + 3Adjustments = CFO(3) + Int.Exp. × (1 – t) – New Fixed Assets
Note:
EBIT × (1 – t) = NI + [Interest Expense × (1 – t)] = (EBITDA – Depr) × (1 – t) 3Adjustments = Depr.(1) – New Fixed Assets(2) – ∆NWC(2)
t = tax rate (1) Depreciation is the main non-cash charge (2) New Fixed Assets & ∆ NWC: subtract increases, add decreases. (3) CFO = NI + Depr. – ∆ NWC FCFE = NI + 3 Adjustments + borrowing = FCFF – Int (1- t) + Net Borrowing = NI + 3Adjustments + Net Borrowing = (EBIT – Int.Exp.) × (1- t) + 3Adjustments + Net Borrowing = (EBITDA – Int.Exp. – Depr.) × (1- t) + 3Adjustments + Net Borrowing = CFO – New Fixed Assets + Net Borrowing
Note:
NI = (EBIT – Int.Exp.) × (1- t) = (EBITDA – Int.Exp. – Depr.) × (1- t) t = tax rate EBT = (EBIT – Int.Exp.) = (EBITDA – Int.Exp. – Depr.) Contrast the recognition of value in the FCFE model to the recognition of value in dividend discount models: Describe the characteristics of companies for which the FCFF model is preferred to the FCFE model. When is FCFF preferred over FCFE? FCFF Example:
| EBITDA | 11,500 | | | | Depreciation | - 1,500 | Net Borrowing | 800 | | EBIT | 10,000 | | | | Interest | - 1,000 | Depreciation | 1,500 | | EBT | 9,000 | New Fixed Assets | - 1,800 | | Tax (30%) | - 2,700 | Change in NWC | - 900 | | Net Income | 6,300 | 3 Adjustments | - 1,200 |
FCFF = EBIT × (1 - t) plus 3 adjustments
= EBIT × (1 – t) + 3 adjustments = 10,000 × (0.7) + (-1,200) = 5,800 = NI + [Int.Exp. × (1 – t)] + 3ADJ = 6,300 + [1,000 × 0.7] + (-1,200) = 5,800 = (EBITDA – Depr) × (1 – t) + 3ADJ = (11,500 - 1,500) × 0.7 + (-1,200) = 5,800
FCFE Example:
| EBITDA | 11,500 | | | | Depreciation | - 1,500 | Net Borrowing | 800 | | EBIT | 10,000 | | | | Interest | - 1,000 | Depreciation | 1,500 | | EBT | 9,000 | New Fixed Assets | - 1,800 | | Tax (30%) | - 2,700 | Change in NWC | - 900 | | Net Income | 6,300 | 3 Adjustments | - 1,200 |
FCFE = FCFF – [Interest x (1- t)] + Net Borrowing = 5,800 - [1,000 × 0.7] + 800 = 5,900 = NI + 3Adjustments + Net Borrowing = 6,300 + (-1,200) + 800 = 5,900 = (EBIT – Int.Exp.) × (1- t) + 3ADJ + Net Borrowing = (10,000 - 1,000) × 0.7 + (-1,200) + 800 = 5,900 = (EBITDA – Int.Exp. – Depr.) × (1- t) + 3Adjustments + Net Borrowing = (11,500 - 1,000 - 1,500) × 0.7 + (-1,200) + 800 = 5,900
Residual Income Valuation If you only make a $2,000 profit on a $1,000,000 investment, you are really losing money since a 5% return in the bank would be $50,000!
Residual Income Definition and Calculation
Residual Income to Equity: RIEq = NI – [Equity Capital x Cost of Eq Cap.] Residual Income to the Firm: RIF = EBIT(1-t) - [Total Capital x WACC]
Economic Value Added (EVA) EVA Adjustments Residual Income Example (simple method)
| CA | 15,000 | CL | 5,000 | Total Cap. | | Net FA | 30,000 | LTD | 10,000 | 40,000 | | | | Common Eq. | 30,000 | | Total Assets | 45,000 | Total L&E | 45,000 | | | | | | | | | EBIT | 10,000 | | | | | Interest | - 1,000 | WACC | 10% | | | EBT | 9,000 | kequity | 12% | | | Tax (30%) | - 2,700 | | | | | Net Income | 6,300 | | | |
RIEq = NI - (Eq × keq) = 6,300 - (30,000 × 0.12) = 2,700 RIF = EBIT(1-t) - [Total Capital × WACC] = 10,000(0.7) - (40,000 × 0.10) = 3,000 Market Value Added (MVA) MVA Example
| CA | 15,000 | CL | 5,000 | Total Cap. | | Net FA | 30,000 | LTD | 10,000 | 40,000 | | | | Common Eq. | 30,000 | | Total Assets | 45,000 | Total L&E | 45,000 | |
= $11,000 + (10,000 × $5.20) - $40,000 = $23,000 MVA measures if the firm has ‘created value’ for the shareholders.
MVA may be positive due to |